Certainly, even in antiquity many people believed that a sexual relationship existed between Achilles and Patroclus (Alexander the Great among them). However, there was nothing in the epic itself that would imply this, aside from the extreme reaction of Achilles to Patroclus's death.

It is difficult to say whether Homer intended such a relationship. On the one hand, Greek sexual practices saw homosexual sex as just something one did. It was not part of one's identity, there was no stigma surrounding it (even to the extent there was in Rome), and so it might not need to be highlighted - after all, there's very little of a sexual nature in the Iliad in the first place. On the other hand, it's not clear that Achilles's sorrow necessarily translates into sexual affection. People are pretty emotional in the book about a lot of things. We infer perhaps too much to infer a sexual relationship.

It's still a matter of dispute, as much as whether or not Homer existed, if he wrote both epics, etc. I was trying not to overreach when dealing with the text.