You're completely missing the point. - Edit 1
Before modification by heartbreak at 07/10/2012 03:35:07 PM
"the most extreme of double digit trials ALMOST matched the poll results; therefore the polls suggest no advantage."
This is not what I'm saying. What I have demonstrated is that with only 100 data points our results per trial can vary enough to lead to different conclusions. Thus, making a conclusion on any given trial of 100 subject to a great amount of error.
Within a minimum of 10 trials, the upper bound of inequality was 69%, less than the polls (which have 36% more samples than each of our trials.) Therefore the collective polls most likely show(ed) a genuine Obama advantage.
136 is not much larger than 100. You have consistently stated that 136 is an ample or huge sample size, can you demonstrate how it is sufficient?