Re: The Bell Curve explained... - Edit 1
Before modification by Shannow at 26/10/2012 02:02:45 PM
Because, (to use the simplest possible example), on a Bell Curve the strongest possible channeler will be exactly twice the strength of the average channeler[...]
That's actually not the case. There is no upper limit inherent in a bell curve, though there may of course be one in this particular case.
Hence the Bell Curve cannot apply to the modern day distribution of known channelers.
Ah, ok. Then I guess we agree.
Well, unless the Bell Curve is intersected by "zero" on the lower side, the problem would be that there must be room on the strength scale for equivalent outliers on both sides.
Meaning that if you have a freakishly strong channeler on the upper side that is 10 standard deviations above the mean, then there must be equal room on the lower side for a very weak channeler that is 10 standard deviations below the mean.
Meaning that the average channeler must fall exactly halfway between these two extremes, given the perfectly symmetrical Bell Curve that is being implied here.