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There was never an optative in recorded Latin or later Romance languages. Tom Send a noteboard - 27/04/2012 09:58:11 PM
The only languages that I am aware of that have a recorded optative are Greek and Sanskrit. The Spanish expression ojalá is just "Oh Allah" taken from the Arabic and not a remnant of any non-existent optative.

I am also curious where you are getting your evidence for the statement that the Greek future indicative was originally derived from an aorist subjunctive form (at least with respect to the active and middle voices) since in many cases the aorist and future forms differ radically (i.e., any verb for which the aorist doesn't have the sigma before the aorist endings), and the future endings are indicative endings rather than subjunctive ones (i.e., even arguing the future derives from aorist indicative is easier to justify than saying it comes from aorist subjunctive).
Political correctness is the pettiest form of casuistry.

ἡ δὲ κἀκ τριῶν τρυπημάτων ἐργαζομένη ἐνεκάλει τῇ φύσει, δυσφορουμένη, ὅτι δὴ μὴ καὶ τοὺς τιτθοὺς αὐτῇ εὐρύτερον ἢ νῦν εἰσι τρυπώη, ὅπως καὶ ἄλλην ἐνταῦθα μίξιν ἐπιτεχνᾶσθαι δυνατὴ εἴη. – Procopius

Ummaka qinnassa nīk!

*MySmiley*
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If I'm not mistaken, the Future Indicative evolved from and replaced some of the Subjunctive. - 27/04/2012 09:44:33 PM 401 Views
There was never an optative in recorded Latin or later Romance languages. - 27/04/2012 09:58:11 PM 318 Views

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